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Refinements of Bernoulli’s inequality                                       39


            Proposition 3 (Double refinement of Bernoulli’s inequality). Let x ≥ 0
            and r ∈ R, r ≥ 3.

                a) We have
                         r
                  (1 + x) ≥ (1 + 2x)(1 + x) r−2  ≥ (1 + 2x) [1 + (r − 2)x] ≥ 1 + rx.  (B3)

            The first and the third inequality become equalities if x = 0, and the second
            inequality becomes equality if r = 3 or x = 0.
                b) We have

                       r
                                  2
                (1 + x) ≥ (1 + x) [1 + (r − 2)x] ≥ (1 + 2x) [1 + (r − 2)x] ≥ 1 + rx.  (B4)
            The first inequality becomes equality if r = 3 or x = 0, and the last two inequalities
            become equalities if x = 0.
            Proof. a) We apply inequality (B) for the powers 2 and r − 2, successively:

                                          (B)                    (B)
                   r
                             2
            (1 + x) = (1 + x) · (1 + x) r−2  ≥ (1 + 2x) · (1 + x) r−2  ≥ (1 + 2x) [1 + (r − 2)x] ,
            that is the first two inequalities in the statement. For the third inequality, we note
                                                           2
            that: (1 + 2x) [1 + (r − 2)x] = 1 + rx + 2(r − 2)x ≥ 1 + rx.
                b) Similar proof, but with the application of inequality (B) in turn, for the
            powers r − 2 and 2.

                A generalization of the last two sentences is given by the following result.
            Proposition 4 (Double refinement of Bernoulli’s inequality). Let x ≥ 0
            and r, p ∈ R, r ≥ 1 + p, p ≥ 1.
                a) We have

                         r
                  (1 + x) ≥ (1 + px)(1 + x) r−p  ≥ (1 + px) [1 + (r − p)x] ≥ 1 + rx.  (B5)

            The first inequality becomes equality if p = 1 or x = 0, the second inequality becomes
            equality if r = p + 1 or x = 0, and the third inequality becomes equality if x = 0.

                b) We have

                       r
                                  p
                (1 + x) ≥ (1 + x) [1 + (r − p)x] ≥ (1 + px) [1 + (r − p)x] ≥ 1 + rx.  (B6)
            The first inequality becomes equality if r = p + 1 or x = 0, the second inequality
            becomes equality if p = 1 or x = 0, and the third inequality becomes equality if
            x = 0.

            Proof. a) We apply inequality (B) for the powers p and r − p, successively:

                                          (B)                    (B)
                   r
                             p
            (1 + x) = (1 + x) · (1 + x) r−p  ≥ (1 + px) · (1 + x) r−p  ≥ (1 + px) [1 + (r − p)x] ,
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